← BCBR

BCBR • High-Yield 100 MCQs

Prioritised for the concepts most likely to be tested from the official BCBR syllabus and assignment framework.
How this bank was built: Questions are weighted toward the 23 official BCBR lecture domains and repeatedly testable assignment concepts—study designs, disease frequency, bias/confounding, sampling, sample size/power, measurement, statistical interpretation, ethics/clinical trials, data management and protocol/publication writing. These are original ClinicalAxom questions, not leaked or claimed verbatim past final-exam questions. Priority labels indicate exam yield based on syllabus centrality and recurring assignment-style concepts.
★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD★★ HIGH YIELD★ CORE BCBR
Ethics & Clinical Trials★★ HIGH YIELD
1. Authorship should generally be based on:
A. Substantive scholarly contribution and accountability, not status alone
B. Departmental seniority alone
C. Payment alone
D. Providing routine space alone
Answer: A. Substantive scholarly contribution and accountability, not status alone

Legitimate authorship requires meaningful contribution and responsibility/accountability according to accepted authorship standards.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
2. In a case-control study, the usual measure of association is:
A. Risk ratio
B. Odds ratio
C. Incidence rate
D. Risk difference
Answer: B. Odds ratio

Because participants are selected by outcome status, risks/incidence usually cannot be estimated directly; the odds ratio is the standard association measure.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
3. Random allocation in a clinical trial primarily helps to:
A. Guarantee blinding
B. Balance known and unknown prognostic factors on average
C. Eliminate loss to follow-up
D. Increase external validity automatically
Answer: B. Balance known and unknown prognostic factors on average

Randomisation reduces systematic baseline differences between intervention groups on average; it does not itself ensure blinding or complete follow-up.

Research Planning & Data★★ HIGH YIELD
4. The best first step when developing a data collection questionnaire is to:
A. Choose a statistical test
B. Link required variables to study objectives
C. Start data entry
D. Remove all closed questions
Answer: B. Link required variables to study objectives

Data collection tools should derive from the objectives and variables needed to answer the research question.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
5. A participant's decision to withdraw from research should generally:
A. Be prohibited after enrolment
B. Be respected without loss of entitled care/benefits, subject to lawful data-handling provisions
C. Require investigator permission
D. Automatically invalidate the whole study
Answer: B. Be respected without loss of entitled care/benefits, subject to lawful data-handling provisions

Voluntary participation includes the right to withdraw, while handling of already collected data follows consent, protocol, ethics and applicable rules.

Research Planning & Data★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
6. The primary objective of a study should:
A. Be added after analysis
B. State the main question the study is designed to answer
C. Always contain multiple outcomes
D. Avoid specifying a population
Answer: B. State the main question the study is designed to answer

The primary objective drives design, sample size, data collection and the principal analysis.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
7. The major purpose of blinding outcome assessors is to reduce:
A. Selection into the source population
B. Differential outcome assessment
C. Sampling variability
D. Loss of allocation sequence
Answer: B. Differential outcome assessment

Blinding assessors reduces measurement/ascertainment bias influenced by knowledge of intervention or exposure.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★ HIGH YIELD
8. Standard deviation primarily describes:
A. Precision of the sample mean
B. Spread of individual observations around the mean
C. Risk of bias
D. Causal effect
Answer: B. Spread of individual observations around the mean

SD describes variability among observations; standard error describes precision of an estimated mean.

Protocol & Scientific Writing★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
9. A primary outcome should ideally be:
A. Defined clearly before analysis
B. Selected after looking for the smallest p value
C. Changed without documentation
D. Impossible to measure
Answer: A. Defined clearly before analysis

Prespecification reduces selective outcome reporting and links sample size and analysis to the main objective.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
10. Serious adverse events in a clinical trial require:
A. Appropriate prompt documentation, clinical management and reporting according to applicable requirements
B. Deletion from the dataset
C. Automatic proof of causality
D. No ethics oversight
Answer: A. Appropriate prompt documentation, clinical management and reporting according to applicable requirements

Participant safety comes first; serious events require management and reporting under the protocol and applicable regulatory/ethics framework.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
11. Positive predictive value is especially affected by:
A. Disease prevalence in the tested population
B. Randomisation sequence only
C. Sample mean only
D. Blinding only
Answer: A. Disease prevalence in the tested population

Predictive values vary with pre-test probability/prevalence as well as test sensitivity/specificity.

Research Planning & Data★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
12. A research question is most useful when it is:
A. Focused, answerable and linked to an appropriate design
B. As broad as possible
C. Defined only after results
D. Unrelated to available measurements
Answer: A. Focused, answerable and linked to an appropriate design

Focused questions guide objectives, design, variables, sample size and analysis.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
13. A researcher wants to estimate the proportion of adults with hypertension in a district at one point in time. Which design is most appropriate?
A. Case-control study
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Randomized trial
D. Case series
Answer: B. Cross-sectional study

A cross-sectional study estimates prevalence by measuring exposure/outcome status in a defined population at a point or short period.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
14. Which measure directly describes new cases occurring in a population at risk over time?
A. Prevalence
B. Incidence
C. Odds
D. Median
Answer: B. Incidence

Incidence concerns new events among persons at risk over a specified time; prevalence describes existing disease burden.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★★ HIGH YIELD
15. Allocation concealment is intended mainly to prevent:
A. Outcome misclassification
B. Foreknowledge of the upcoming treatment assignment during enrolment
C. Random sampling error
D. Publication bias
Answer: B. Foreknowledge of the upcoming treatment assignment during enrolment

Concealment prevents recruiters from predicting the next assignment and selectively enrolling participants.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
16. A confounder is best described as a factor that:
A. Is caused by the outcome
B. Is associated with exposure and outcome and can distort their association
C. Occurs only in randomized trials
D. Always lies on the causal pathway
Answer: B. Is associated with exposure and outcome and can distort their association

A confounder is related to both exposure and outcome but is not an intermediate step in the causal pathway.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★ HIGH YIELD
17. Type I error means:
A. Failing to reject a false null hypothesis
B. Rejecting a true null hypothesis
C. Using a small sample
D. Choosing a non-parametric test
Answer: B. Rejecting a true null hypothesis

Type I error is a false-positive statistical conclusion; its probability is controlled by alpha.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★ HIGH YIELD
18. Which sampling method first divides a population into meaningful subgroups and then samples within each subgroup?
A. Convenience sampling
B. Stratified random sampling
C. Snowball sampling
D. Consecutive sampling
Answer: B. Stratified random sampling

Stratified sampling deliberately samples within defined strata, often to improve representation or precision.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
19. Increasing desired statistical power generally has what effect on required sample size, all else equal?
A. Decreases it
B. Increases it
C. Has no effect
D. Makes sample size irrelevant
Answer: B. Increases it

Higher power generally requires a larger sample for the same effect size, alpha and variability.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
20. A p value of 0.03 means:
A. There is a 3% probability the null hypothesis is true
B. Assuming the null/model, data this or more extreme would have probability about 3%
C. The treatment has a 97% chance of working
D. The result is clinically important
Answer: B. Assuming the null/model, data this or more extreme would have probability about 3%

The p value is computed under the null/model assumptions; it is not the posterior probability that the null is true and does not establish clinical importance.

Research Planning & Data★★ HIGH YIELD
21. Pilot testing a questionnaire is especially useful for identifying:
A. Only sampling error
B. Ambiguous wording and operational problems
C. The final causal effect
D. Publication bias
Answer: B. Ambiguous wording and operational problems

Piloting checks comprehension, flow, feasibility, coding and field procedures before full deployment.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
22. Valid informed consent requires:
A. Signature alone
B. Adequate information, comprehension and voluntariness
C. Payment to every participant
D. No opportunity to withdraw
Answer: B. Adequate information, comprehension and voluntariness

Consent is a process requiring relevant disclosure, understanding and voluntary choice; a signature alone is insufficient.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★ HIGH YIELD
23. Plagiarism means:
A. Using statistical software
B. Presenting another person's words or ideas without appropriate attribution
C. Publishing a negative result
D. Using a reference manager
Answer: B. Presenting another person's words or ideas without appropriate attribution

Plagiarism is misappropriation of others' work or ideas without proper attribution.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
24. Which design begins with exposure status and follows participants for subsequent outcome occurrence?
A. Case-control
B. Cohort
C. Cross-sectional
D. Ecological
Answer: B. Cohort

A cohort design classifies exposure before outcome follow-up, supporting incidence estimation and temporality.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
25. Intention-to-treat analysis generally analyses randomized participants according to:
A. Treatment actually received only
B. Original randomized assignment
C. Investigator preference
D. Outcome severity
Answer: B. Original randomized assignment

Intention-to-treat preserves the randomized comparison by retaining participants in their assigned groups, subject to appropriate handling of missing outcomes.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
26. A systematic difference in recall of past exposure between cases and controls is:
A. Recall bias
B. Confounding
C. Random error
D. Effect modification
Answer: A. Recall bias

Recall bias is a form of information bias particularly relevant when past exposures are remembered differently by outcome groups.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
27. Loss to follow-up threatens validity most when it is:
A. Zero
B. Related to exposure/intervention and outcome risk
C. Randomly distributed with no relation to prognosis
D. Reported transparently
Answer: B. Related to exposure/intervention and outcome risk

Differential or prognosis-related attrition can distort group comparisons and introduce selection bias.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
28. Standard error generally becomes smaller when:
A. Sample size increases, all else equal
B. Sample size decreases
C. Measurement error increases
D. Alpha increases
Answer: A. Sample size increases, all else equal

For common estimators, standard error decreases as sample size increases, reflecting greater precision.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
29. Simple random sampling requires that:
A. Every eligible unit has a known selection mechanism/chance under the sampling frame
B. Only volunteers are selected
C. Cases are selected first
D. Clusters are always used
Answer: A. Every eligible unit has a known selection mechanism/chance under the sampling frame

Probability sampling uses a defined random selection mechanism rather than convenience or investigator choice.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★★ HIGH YIELD
30. Convenience sampling is most vulnerable to:
A. Selection bias and limited representativeness
B. Allocation concealment
C. Randomisation failure
D. Type I error only
Answer: A. Selection bias and limited representativeness

Convenience samples are selected for ease rather than probability, which can limit representativeness.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
31. For estimating a prevalence with greater precision (narrower margin of error), sample size generally should:
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain fixed regardless of prevalence
D. Become zero
Answer: A. Increase

Greater precision requires more observations, all else equal.

Research Planning & Data★★ HIGH YIELD
32. A focus group is most aligned with:
A. Qualitative research
B. Randomized allocation
C. Laboratory calibration
D. Meta-analysis only
Answer: A. Qualitative research

Focus groups generate qualitative data about experiences, views, meanings and social interaction.

Research Planning & Data★★ HIGH YIELD
33. Purposive sampling is commonly used in qualitative research to:
A. Randomly represent every person
B. Select information-rich participants relevant to the question
C. Calculate incidence directly
D. Guarantee blinding
Answer: B. Select information-rich participants relevant to the question

Purposive sampling intentionally selects participants likely to provide relevant, diverse or rich perspectives.

Research Planning & Data★★ HIGH YIELD
34. Thematic analysis primarily seeks to:
A. Estimate a risk ratio
B. Identify and interpret patterns/themes in qualitative data
C. Calculate sample variance only
D. Randomize participants
Answer: B. Identify and interpret patterns/themes in qualitative data

Thematic analysis systematically codes qualitative material and develops patterns of meaning.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★★ HIGH YIELD
35. A vulnerable participant group may require:
A. Additional safeguards against coercion or undue influence
B. Automatic exclusion from all research
C. No consent process
D. Less privacy
Answer: A. Additional safeguards against coercion or undue influence

Vulnerability calls for proportionate protections, not blanket exclusion when research is ethically justified.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★★ HIGH YIELD
36. Undue inducement is a concern when an offer:
A. May distort voluntary decision-making in context
B. Simply reimburses reasonable expenses
C. Is disclosed to the ethics committee
D. Is documented
Answer: A. May distort voluntary decision-making in context

Payments/benefits must be structured so they do not improperly compromise voluntariness, especially in vulnerable settings.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
37. A narrow confidence interval compared with a wide interval usually indicates:
A. Greater precision
B. More bias necessarily
C. Greater clinical importance automatically
D. No sampling error
Answer: A. Greater precision

Width reflects statistical precision under the model; narrower intervals generally mean more precise estimation.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
38. If a 95% confidence interval for a risk ratio includes 1, then at the conventional two-sided 5% level:
A. The result is not statistically significant for the null RR=1
B. The exposure is proven harmless
C. The study is invalid
D. The effect is exactly zero
Answer: A. The result is not statistically significant for the null RR=1

For a ratio measure, 1 is the null value; inclusion generally corresponds to p≥0.05 for the matching two-sided test.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
39. A cohort study can directly estimate:
A. Incidence in exposed and unexposed groups
B. Only prevalence odds
C. Only sensitivity
D. Only specificity
Answer: A. Incidence in exposed and unexposed groups

Following outcome-free participants over time permits direct incidence estimation.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★★ HIGH YIELD
40. Duplicate publication can be problematic because it:
A. Can distort the evidence base and misrepresent originality
B. Always improves precision appropriately
C. Is required for negative studies
D. Eliminates plagiarism
Answer: A. Can distort the evidence base and misrepresent originality

Undisclosed redundant publication can double-count evidence and breach publication ethics.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
41. Effect modification differs from confounding because effect modification:
A. Represents genuine variation in an effect across levels of another variable
B. Is always a bias to eliminate
C. Occurs only from measurement error
D. Is identical to random error
Answer: A. Represents genuine variation in an effect across levels of another variable

Effect modification/interaction can be scientifically meaningful heterogeneity, whereas confounding is distortion to control.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
42. Matching in a case-control study is used primarily to:
A. Control/design-balance selected potential confounders, with matched analysis required
B. Estimate prevalence directly
C. Randomize exposure
D. Eliminate all bias
Answer: A. Control/design-balance selected potential confounders, with matched analysis required

Matching can control selected confounding factors but must be accounted for in analysis and may introduce overmatching concerns.

Biostatistics & Measurement★ CORE BCBR
43. Which summary is generally preferred for a markedly right-skewed continuous variable?
A. Mean and standard deviation
B. Median and interquartile range
C. Proportion and risk ratio
D. Mode and variance only
Answer: B. Median and interquartile range

Median and IQR are resistant to extreme values and better represent a skewed distribution.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
44. A 95% confidence interval primarily conveys:
A. The probability that the null hypothesis is true
B. Precision and a range of values compatible with the data/model
C. The probability that the study is unbiased
D. Clinical importance alone
Answer: B. Precision and a range of values compatible with the data/model

A confidence interval expresses uncertainty/precision around an estimate under the analysis assumptions; it is not the probability that a fixed parameter lies inside a realised interval.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
45. Statistical power is the probability of:
A. Rejecting a false null hypothesis
B. Rejecting a true null hypothesis
C. Obtaining p exactly 0.05
D. Avoiding all bias
Answer: A. Rejecting a false null hypothesis

Power is 1−beta: the probability of detecting a specified effect when that effect truly exists under the model.

Biostatistics & Measurement★ CORE BCBR
46. Which is an example of a nominal variable?
A. Pain score 0–10
B. Cancer stage I–IV
C. Blood group
D. Body weight
Answer: C. Blood group

Blood group consists of unordered categories, making it nominal.

Biostatistics & Measurement★ CORE BCBR
47. Which is an ordinal variable?
A. Serum sodium
B. Tumour stage I–IV
C. Sex assigned at birth categories
D. Height
Answer: B. Tumour stage I–IV

Ordered categories such as stages are ordinal because rank matters but intervals need not be equal.

Research Planning & Data★ CORE BCBR
48. Which practice most directly protects participant confidentiality in an analysis dataset?
A. Publishing names with consent assumed
B. Using coded study identifiers and restricting the linkage file
C. Removing the protocol
D. Avoiding backups
Answer: B. Using coded study identifiers and restricting the linkage file

Coded identifiers with controlled access to the re-identification key reduce unnecessary exposure of direct identifiers.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★ CORE BCBR
49. Which ethical principle is most directly concerned with fair distribution of research burdens and benefits?
A. Autonomy
B. Justice
C. Fidelity
D. Blinding
Answer: B. Justice

Justice addresses fairness in participant selection and distribution of research burdens and benefits.

Core Research Methods★ CORE BCBR
50. Which is research misconduct?
A. Reporting a prespecified null result
B. Fabricating observations that were never collected
C. Using confidence intervals
D. Registering a trial
Answer: B. Fabricating observations that were never collected

Fabrication is making up data or results and recording/reporting them as if real.

Biostatistics & Measurement★ CORE BCBR
51. A null hypothesis commonly states that:
A. A meaningful effect definitely exists
B. There is no specified difference or association in the population under the tested model
C. The study is unbiased
D. The sample equals the population
Answer: B. There is no specified difference or association in the population under the tested model

The null typically specifies no effect/difference/association for the parameter being tested.

Core Research Methods★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
52. A clinically important effect can have p>0.05 particularly when:
A. The study has limited precision/power
B. The null is certainly true
C. Bias is impossible
D. The outcome is nominal
Answer: A. The study has limited precision/power

Failure to reach a significance threshold may reflect imprecision; effect size and confidence interval should be examined.

Core Research Methods★ CORE BCBR
53. Cluster sampling selects:
A. Only individuals independently from the entire population
B. Natural groups such as villages or schools, then units within/all members as designed
C. Only cases
D. Only exposed participants
Answer: B. Natural groups such as villages or schools, then units within/all members as designed

Cluster designs sample groups, often for logistical efficiency, and analysis/design must account for within-cluster similarity.

Biostatistics & Measurement★ CORE BCBR
54. Which test is commonly used to compare the means of two independent groups when parametric assumptions are reasonable?
A. Independent-samples t test
B. McNemar test
C. Log-rank test only
D. Spearman correlation
Answer: A. Independent-samples t test

An independent t test compares two independent group means under its assumptions.

Research Planning & Data★ CORE BCBR
55. A data dictionary should ideally contain:
A. Variable names, definitions, coding and allowed values
B. Only participant names
C. Only references
D. Only p values
Answer: A. Variable names, definitions, coding and allowed values

A data dictionary documents how variables are represented and interpreted, supporting consistent data management/analysis.

Research Planning & Data★ CORE BCBR
56. Double data entry or validation checks are used mainly to:
A. Reduce data-entry errors
B. Increase confounding
C. Replace informed consent
D. Guarantee external validity
Answer: A. Reduce data-entry errors

Independent entry/comparison or validation rules can detect transcription and coding errors.

Protocol & Scientific Writing★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
57. A research protocol should specify the analysis plan primarily to:
A. Make analysis transparent and aligned with objectives
B. Guarantee significant results
C. Avoid collecting outcomes
D. Replace ethics review
Answer: A. Make analysis transparent and aligned with objectives

Prespecifying analysis improves coherence and reduces opportunistic analytical choices.

Protocol & Scientific Writing★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
58. The background section of a protocol should primarily establish:
A. Why the research question matters and what gap exists
B. The final results
C. Participant passwords
D. The p value
Answer: A. Why the research question matters and what gap exists

Background/rationale synthesises existing knowledge and identifies the gap motivating the study.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★ CORE BCBR
59. A trial registry primarily promotes:
A. Transparency about planned trials and outcomes
B. Blinding of all participants automatically
C. Removal of adverse events
D. Guaranteed publication
Answer: A. Transparency about planned trials and outcomes

Prospective registration improves transparency and helps identify selective reporting or unpublished trials.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★ CORE BCBR
60. The ethics committee's core role is to:
A. Protect rights, safety and well-being of research participants through independent review
B. Perform all statistical analyses
C. Recruit all participants
D. Write the investigator's thesis
Answer: A. Protect rights, safety and well-being of research participants through independent review

Independent ethics review evaluates scientific/ethical acceptability with focus on participant rights, safety and welfare.

Research Planning & Data★ CORE BCBR
61. De-identification differs from simple coding because robust de-identification aims to:
A. Reduce reasonable ability to link data back to an individual using available information
B. Add more names
C. Publish the linkage key
D. Avoid data security
Answer: A. Reduce reasonable ability to link data back to an individual using available information

Coding/pseudonymisation can remain reversible via a key; de-identification seeks to make re-identification substantially less feasible.

Research Planning & Data★ CORE BCBR
62. A backup strategy is important because it:
A. Protects against data loss and supports research continuity
B. Creates statistical significance
C. Eliminates confounding
D. Replaces access control
Answer: A. Protects against data loss and supports research continuity

Secure, tested backups are part of data integrity and continuity planning.

Core Research Methods★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
63. Critical appraisal asks first whether study results are:
A. Valid enough to trust before considering magnitude and applicability
B. Published in a famous journal only
C. Statistically significant only
D. Positive
Answer: A. Valid enough to trust before considering magnitude and applicability

Appraisal considers validity/risk of bias before interpreting effects and applicability.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
64. Prevalence is influenced by:
A. Incidence and duration of disease
B. Incidence only and never duration
C. Randomisation only
D. Blinding only
Answer: A. Incidence and duration of disease

Prevalence reflects both occurrence and how long individuals remain in the diseased state.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
65. A cross-sectional study has limited ability to establish temporality because:
A. Exposure and outcome are often measured at the same time
B. It always randomizes participants
C. It never measures prevalence
D. It includes only cases
Answer: A. Exposure and outcome are often measured at the same time

Simultaneous measurement can make it unclear whether exposure preceded outcome.

Biostatistics & Measurement★ CORE BCBR
66. Sensitivity is the proportion of:
A. People with disease who test positive
B. People without disease who test negative
C. Positive tests that truly have disease
D. All tests that are negative
Answer: A. People with disease who test positive

Sensitivity is P(test positive | disease).

Biostatistics & Measurement★ CORE BCBR
67. Specificity is the proportion of:
A. People without disease who test negative
B. People with disease who test positive
C. Positive tests that truly have disease
D. Diseased people who test negative
Answer: A. People without disease who test negative

Specificity is P(test negative | no disease).

Research Planning & Data★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
68. Missing data should be handled by:
A. Describing their extent/pattern and using justified methods rather than silently deleting without assessment
B. Inventing values
C. Ignoring all missingness
D. Changing outcomes
Answer: A. Describing their extent/pattern and using justified methods rather than silently deleting without assessment

Transparent assessment and appropriate methods are needed because missingness can reduce precision and introduce bias.

Research Planning & Data★ CORE BCBR
69. Multiple hypothesis testing can increase the chance of:
A. False-positive findings
B. Eliminating Type I error
C. Perfect power
D. No missing data
Answer: A. False-positive findings

Testing many hypotheses without appropriate control raises the probability of at least one chance-positive result.

Research Planning & Data★ CORE BCBR
70. A literature search using AND between two concepts generally:
A. Narrows results to records containing both concepts
B. Broadens to either concept
C. Excludes both concepts
D. Sorts by p value
Answer: A. Narrows results to records containing both concepts

Boolean AND intersects concepts; OR usually broadens within a concept set.

Research Planning & Data★ CORE BCBR
71. Using OR between synonyms in a database search generally:
A. Broadens retrieval for that concept
B. Restricts to records containing every synonym
C. Removes duplicates only
D. Calculates sample size
Answer: A. Broadens retrieval for that concept

OR captures records containing any of the alternative terms/synonyms.

Core Research Methods★ CORE BCBR
72. Feasibility assessment should consider:
A. Time, participants, expertise, resources and operational constraints
B. Only the title
C. Only statistical significance
D. Only journal impact factor
Answer: A. Time, participants, expertise, resources and operational constraints

A scientifically interesting question must also be practically achievable with available resources and access.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
73. The denominator for cumulative incidence should include:
A. Individuals initially at risk of developing the outcome
B. All existing cases only
C. Only participants lost to follow-up
D. Only exposed cases
Answer: A. Individuals initially at risk of developing the outcome

Risk/cumulative incidence begins with a disease-free population at risk for the event.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
74. Person-time is particularly useful when:
A. Individuals contribute different lengths of follow-up
B. Every participant has identical follow-up and no censoring only
C. Measuring nominal categories
D. Writing consent forms
Answer: A. Individuals contribute different lengths of follow-up

Incidence rates use person-time to accommodate varying observation durations.

Protocol & Scientific Writing★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
75. A protocol deviation should generally be:
A. Documented and assessed for impact/safety according to procedures
B. Erased from records
C. Ignored if inconvenient
D. Converted into an outcome
Answer: A. Documented and assessed for impact/safety according to procedures

Transparent documentation preserves integrity and permits appropriate safety and analytical assessment.

Research Planning & Data★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
76. Version control for study documents helps:
A. Ensure teams use traceable current approved documents
B. Increase incidence
C. Randomize participants
D. Replace backups
Answer: A. Ensure teams use traceable current approved documents

Version/date tracking prevents use of outdated forms/protocols and supports auditability.

Research Planning & Data★ CORE BCBR
77. A codebook is particularly useful during analysis because it:
A. Defines how variables and values are encoded
B. Provides participant treatment
C. Determines authorship
D. Replaces raw data
Answer: A. Defines how variables and values are encoded

A codebook/data dictionary makes datasets interpretable and reproducible.

Research Planning & Data★ CORE BCBR
78. Before analysis, range and logic checks can identify:
A. Impossible or inconsistent values
B. Confounding with certainty
C. All fraud
D. All missing data mechanisms
Answer: A. Impossible or inconsistent values

Validation checks flag values outside allowable ranges or inconsistent combinations for review.

Core Research Methods★ CORE BCBR
79. External validity refers to:
A. Freedom from bias within the study only
B. Applicability/generalizability of findings beyond the study sample/context
C. The p value
D. Data-entry accuracy
Answer: B. Applicability/generalizability of findings beyond the study sample/context

External validity concerns whether findings apply to other populations, settings or circumstances.

Biostatistics & Measurement★ CORE BCBR
80. Which graph is especially useful for displaying the distribution of a continuous variable?
A. Histogram
B. Pie chart only
C. Flow diagram only
D. Forest plot only
Answer: A. Histogram

A histogram displays the frequency distribution and shape of continuous data grouped into intervals.

Biostatistics & Measurement★ CORE BCBR
81. A statistically significant result can still be clinically trivial when:
A. The effect size is very small
B. The sample is randomized
C. Confidence intervals are reported
D. The protocol was registered
Answer: A. The effect size is very small

Large samples can detect very small effects; clinical importance depends on magnitude, harms, costs and context.

Biostatistics & Measurement★ CORE BCBR
82. Which test is commonly used to compare proportions between independent groups when assumptions are met?
A. Chi-square test
B. Paired t test
C. Pearson correlation only
D. Linear regression only
Answer: A. Chi-square test

The chi-square test commonly assesses association between categorical variables in contingency tables when expected counts are adequate.

Biostatistics & Measurement★ CORE BCBR
83. For paired before-and-after continuous measurements with approximately normal differences, a common test is:
A. Paired t test
B. Independent t test
C. Chi-square test
D. Fisher exact test
Answer: A. Paired t test

The paired t test uses within-person differences for paired continuous observations.

Biostatistics & Measurement★ CORE BCBR
84. Correlation coefficient r close to 0 implies:
A. No possible relationship of any kind
B. Little or no linear correlation
C. Definite independence
D. Causation is absent
Answer: B. Little or no linear correlation

Pearson r measures linear association; a near-zero value does not exclude nonlinear relationships.

Biostatistics & Measurement★ CORE BCBR
85. Logistic regression is commonly used when the dependent outcome is:
A. Binary
B. Always continuous normal
C. A time variable only
D. A study identifier
Answer: A. Binary

Logistic regression models the log odds of a binary outcome and can adjust for multiple predictors.

Research Planning & Data★ CORE BCBR
86. Eligibility criteria should be defined:
A. After seeing results
B. Before recruitment as part of the protocol
C. Only for cases
D. Only if the p value is significant
Answer: B. Before recruitment as part of the protocol

Predefined inclusion/exclusion criteria improve consistency, reproducibility and protection against post hoc selection.

Research Planning & Data★ CORE BCBR
87. A Gantt chart is useful in research project management for:
A. Displaying activities against a timeline
B. Estimating odds ratios
C. Testing normality
D. Obtaining consent
Answer: A. Displaying activities against a timeline

Gantt charts help schedule tasks, milestones and dependencies across a project timeline.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★ CORE BCBR
88. For a risk difference, the null value is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 50
D. −1 always
Answer: A. 0

No absolute difference corresponds to risk difference zero.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★ CORE BCBR
89. An ecological study uses data primarily at the level of:
A. Groups or populations
B. Individual randomized participants only
C. Cells only
D. Single patients only
Answer: A. Groups or populations

Ecological studies analyse aggregate/group-level exposure and outcome measures.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★ CORE BCBR
90. Ecological fallacy occurs when:
A. Group-level associations are incorrectly assumed to apply to individuals
B. A sample is too large
C. A trial is blinded
D. Data are backed up
Answer: A. Group-level associations are incorrectly assumed to apply to individuals

Relationships observed across groups need not represent individual-level relationships.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
91. In a survey, 80 of 400 adults currently have hypertension. What is the prevalence?
A. 5%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 80%
Answer: B. 20%

Prevalence = existing cases ÷ population assessed = 80/400 = 0.20 = 20%.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
92. Among 500 disease-free persons followed for one year, 25 develop the disease. What is the one-year cumulative incidence?
A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Answer: B. 5%

Cumulative incidence = new cases ÷ persons initially at risk = 25/500 = 5%.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
93. Disease develops in 40/200 exposed persons and 10/200 unexposed persons. What is the risk ratio?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 0.25
D. 30
Answer: B. 4

Risk exposed = 0.20; risk unexposed = 0.05; RR = 0.20/0.05 = 4.

Epidemiology & Study Designs★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
94. In a case-control study, 60 cases and 30 controls were exposed; 40 cases and 70 controls were unexposed. What is the odds ratio?
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 3.5
D. 7.0
Answer: C. 3.5

OR = ad/bc = (60×70)/(40×30) = 4200/1200 = 3.5.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
95. For estimating a proportion with 95% confidence, expected prevalence 50% and absolute precision 10%, using n = 4pq/d² with percentages, the approximate sample size is:
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 400
Answer: C. 100

n = 4×50×50/10² = 10000/100 = 100. This is the common approximate prevalence sample-size calculation.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
96. A diagnostic test is positive in 90 of 100 diseased participants. What is its sensitivity?
A. 10%
B. 50%
C. 90%
D. 100%
Answer: C. 90%

Sensitivity = true positives ÷ all with disease = 90/100 = 90%.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
97. A diagnostic test is negative in 180 of 200 participants without disease. What is its specificity?
A. 10%
B. 80%
C. 90%
D. 95%
Answer: C. 90%

Specificity = true negatives ÷ all without disease = 180/200 = 90%.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
98. A treatment comparison gives RR 0.72 with 95% CI 0.55–0.94. Which interpretation is best?
A. The interval includes the null value
B. The result is statistically significant at the conventional two-sided 5% level and suggests lower risk
C. There is definitely no bias
D. The treatment reduces risk by exactly 28% in every patient
Answer: B. The result is statistically significant at the conventional two-sided 5% level and suggests lower risk

For a ratio, the null is 1. The entire 95% CI is below 1, so the corresponding two-sided test is conventionally significant; this does not prove absence of bias or an individual-level benefit.

Biostatistics & Measurement★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
99. A mean difference is 3.0 units with 95% CI −1.0 to 7.0. Which is correct?
A. It excludes no difference
B. It includes the null value 0
C. It proves equivalence
D. It proves the intervention is harmful
Answer: B. It includes the null value 0

For a difference measure, 0 is the null. Because the interval crosses 0, the data are compatible with no difference at the conventional two-sided 5% level.

Ethics & Clinical Trials★★★ VERY HIGH YIELD
100. Which statement correctly distinguishes random sampling from randomisation?
A. Both mean exactly the same thing
B. Random sampling selects participants from a population; randomisation assigns enrolled trial participants to interventions
C. Randomisation selects controls in case-control studies only
D. Random sampling guarantees blinding
Answer: B. Random sampling selects participants from a population; randomisation assigns enrolled trial participants to interventions

Sampling addresses selection from a population; randomisation addresses allocation to intervention groups. This distinction is a classic research-methodology exam trap.